## Wednesday, April 18, 2012

### Calculus Revisited # 20: Taylor Series and Maclaurin Series

Welcome to Part 20 of 21: Taylor and Maclaurin Series.

The Taylor and Maclaurin series are representation of the function f(x) by using an infinite series. If we use a finite number of terms, the series can (I stress can), but a good approximation f(x).

A Taylor series of f(x) is centered on a focus point x = a. Generally, approximations are best when x is around a, and gets worse the further x gets from a.

Taylor Series:

About the point x = a:

f(x) = f(a) + f'(a) * (x - 1) + f''(a) * (x - a)^2 / 2! + f'''(a) * (x - a)^3 / 3! + ....

If the series is cut off at n terms, the final term of the Taylor series is:

f^(n+1)(t) / (n+1)! * (x - a)^(n+1). This is known as the error term.

Maclaurin Series:

The Taylor series with a = 0.

f(x) = f(0) + f'(0) * x + f''(0) * x^2/2! + f'''(0) *x^3/3! + ...

With error term f^(n+1)(0) / (n+1)! * x^(n+1)

Some famous series:

e^x = 1 + x + x^2/2! + x^3/3! + x^4/4! + .... + x^n/n! + ....

sin x = x - x^3/3! + x^5/5! - x^7/7! + .... + ( (-1)^n * x^(2n+1) ) / (2n+1)! + ....

cos x = 1 - x^2/2! + x^4/4! - x^6/6! + ... + ( (-1)^n * x^(2n) ) / (2n)! + ....

Problems

1. Find a Macluarin series for

f(x) = ln(x + 1) to four terms

f(x) = ln(x + 1)
f(0) = ln(0 + 1) = 0

f'(x) = 1/(x+1)
f'(0) = 1/1 = 1

f''(x) = -1/(x+1)^2
f''(0) = -1/(1^2) = -1

f'''(x) = 2/(x+1)^3
f'''(0) = 2/(1^3) = 2

Then:

ln(x + 1) = 0 + 1 * x + (-1) * x^2/2! + 2 * x^3/3! + ....
= x - x^2/2! + 2x^3/3! + ....

2. Find the Macluarin series for

f(x) = e^(-x^2) to three nonzero terms. Approximate its integral.

f(x) = e^(-x^2)
f(0) = 1

f'(x) = e^(-x^2) * (-2x)
f'(0) = 0

f''(x) = e^(-x^2) * (4x^2 - 2)
f''(0) = -2

f'''(x) = e^(-x^2) * (-8x^3 + 12x)
f'''(0) = 0

f''''(x) = e^(-x^2) * (16x^4 - 48x^2 + 12)
f''''(0) = 12

Then:

e^(-x^2) = 1 - 2 * x^2/2! + 12 * x^4/4! + ....
= 1 - x^2 + x^4/2 + ...

∫ e^(-x^2) dx = x -x^3/3 + x^5/10 + .... + C

3. Find the Taylor series for cos x at a = π/4 to three nonzero terms.

f(x) = cos x
f(π/4) = √2/2

f'(x) = - sin x
f'(π/4) = -√2/2

f''(x) = -cos x
f''(π/4) = -√2/2

Then:

cos x = √2/2 - √2/2 * (x - π/4) + √2/2 * (x - π/4)^2/2! + ....

That concludes our section on Taylor and Maclaurin series. The next and last entry will be our "catch all" entry.

Thank you as always,

Eddie

This blog is property of Edward Shore. © 2012

### Casio fx-CG50 and Swiss Micros DM32: HP 16C’s Bit Summation

Casio fx-CG50 and Swiss Micros DM32: HP 16C’s Bit Summation The HP 16C’s #B Function The #B function is the HP 16C’s number of...